Saturday, October 21, 2017

UGC NET Paper III in Education { 2013 September - Previous Questions}

1. Pragmatism as a School of Philosophy assumes that
(A) Learning takes place through pure trial and error
(B) Predictions can be made only in terms of probabilities
(C) Laws governing the universe is the only universals
(D) Nature of the universe is best described by stability
Answer: (B)

2. Who among the following is an existentialist thinker?
(A) Sartre
(B) Kilpatrick
(C) Rousseau
(D) Froebel
Answer: (A)

3. Which of the following philosophies claimed that Vāsna and Trishna (irrational desires and appetites) lie at the root of human suffering?
(A) Jainism
(B) Vedanta
(C) Buddhism
(D) Samkhya
Answer: (C)

4. For equality of educational opportunities among women, the Constitution has provision under
(i) Article 45
(ii) Article 15(3)
(iii) Article 16(1) and (2)
(iv) All the above
Which of the above is correct?
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct.
(D) (iv) is correct.
Answer: (D)

5. Special schools are required for equality of educational opportunities among
(A) Talented students
(B) Backward students
(C) Physically challenged students
(D) SC/ST students
Answer: (C)

6. Who said ‘Education follows social change’?
(A) Durkheim
(B) Johnson
(C) Ottaway
(D) John Dewey
Answer: (C)

7. Which of the following is not correct in the context of formal operational stage of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development?
(A) Children start using abstract symbols.
(B) Children start formulating hypotheses and testing them in their experience.
(C) They follow trial and error methods to solve problems.
(D) They develop the capacity to analyse, synthesize and generalize.
Answer: (C)

8. Which of the following is not a condition for creativity?
(A) Rationality
(B) Non-rationality
(C) Openness to experience
(D) Correctedness
Answer: (A)

9. The most common “model” a child selects is
(A) An older sibling
(B) His parent, a teacher or a person in authority
(C) A person whose conduct approaches perfection
(D) A person who approximates the child’s self-ideal
Answer: (D)

10. Chain learning is connected with
(A) Bruner
(B) Gagne
(C) Tolman 
(D) Thorndike
Answer: (B)

11. In List – I name of the psychologists and in List – II the concepts developed by them are given. Match List – I with List – II in correct order.
List – I                        List – II
a. Thurston                  1. Emotional Intelligence
b. Goleman                  2. Social Intelligence
c. Guilford                  3. Mutifactor Theory of Intelligence
d. Gardner                   4. Structure of Intellect
5. Two factor Theory of Intelligence
a          b          c          d
(A)       1          3          2          4
(B)       3          2          1          5
(C)       2          1          4          3
(D)       4          2          1          5
Answer: (C)

12. Learning driving is based on
(A) Insight learning
(B) Operant conditioning
(C) Instrumental conditioning
(D) Trial and Error learning
Answer: (D)

13. Psychoanalysis is propounded by
(A) Carl Justav Jung
(B) Anna Freud
(C) Alfred Adler
(D) Sigmund Freud
Answer: (D)

14. Match the following in List – I with that of in List – II in the correct order:
List – I                        List – II
a. Alfred Adler           1. TAT
b. Henry Murray         2. Inferiority feelings
c. Sigmund Freud       3. Creative thinking
d. Wallach- Kogan      4. Defence mechanism
5. Critical thinking
a          b          c          d
(A)       1          3          2          4
(B)       2          4          3          5
(C)       2          1          4          3
(D)       4          2          3          1
Answer: (C)

15. Critically judge the following:
Assertion (A): Creativity can be nurtured in the classroom.
Reason (R): If the teacher is open to experience and tolerant of ambiguity
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) Only (A) is correct.
(C) Only (R) is correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
Answer: (A)

16. Purpose of guidance is to
(A) Free the child of all serious conflicts.
(B) Prevent conflicts from overcoming the child.
(C) Prevent conflicts from arising in the life of the child.
(D) See that pupils conform to the school regulations.
Answer: (B)

17. In handling placement services, one should remember that
(A) The placement officer should not attempt to do counselling.
(B) Placement should include training as well as job placements.
(C) Follow-up of job placement is a function of counselling.
(D) Answer (B) and (C)
Answer: (D)

18. The key advantage of using group counselling over individual counselling is
(A) Confidentiality
(B) Social interaction
(C) Peer exploration of issues
(D) Less fear of speaking about emotions
Answer: (C)

19. Critically judge the following and answer:
Assertion (A): You can safely generalize the findings of your experiment.
Reason (R1): It is target population.
Reason (R2): It is experimentally accessible population.
(A) (A) matches with both (R1) and (R2)
(B) (A) matches with (R1) more than (R2)
(C) (A) matches with (R2)
(D) (A) matches neither with (R1) nor with (R2)
Answer: (C)

20. In experimental research an investigator normally prefers to formulate null hypotheses rather than research hypotheses because
(A) It is easy to formulate null hypotheses.
(B) It is wrong to formulate research hypotheses.
(C) Null hypotheses are statistically testable.
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)

21. In the context of testing of a null hypothesis, if it is significant at
(A) α = 0.05, it is also significant at α = 0.01
(B) α = 0.01, it is also significant at α = 0.05
(C) α = 0.05, it is not significant at α = 0.01
(D) α = 0.01, it is not significant at α = 0.05
Answer: (B)

22. Read the assertion and reasons given below and find the correct match.
Assertion (A): An experimenter used section – A students of a class as experimental group and section – B students of the same class as control group for a period of one year.
Reason-1 (R1): Both the groups are equivalent.
Reason-2 (R2): The experiment would disturb normal activities of the school.
(A) (A) matches with (R1)
(B) (A) matches with (R2)
(C) (A) matches with both (R1) and (R2)
(D) (A) matches neither with (R1) nor with (R2)
Answer: (B)

23. Which of the following factors does not affect internal validity of an experimental design?
(A) Statistical regression
(B) Maturation of subjects
(C) Pre-testing
(D) Noise during experiment
Answer: (D)

24. A researcher compared the mean IQ scores of randomly selected government and private school students and arrived at conclusion that private school curriculum has significant positive effect on intelligence of students as compared to that of the government school. This study can be categorized as
(A) Experimental
(B) Ex-post facto
(C) Historical
(D) Case study
Answer: (B)

25. Which of the following is the foremost factor in the determination of the effectiveness of the curriculum?
(A) The competence of the teacher
(B) The cooperation of the community
(C) The interest of the body
(D) The leadership of the administration
Answer: (C)

26. The school curriculum should be planned to agree with
(A) The goals, purposes and interests of the pupils
(B) Available text books in various subjects.
(C) College entrance requirements
(D) Training and interest of teachers
Answer: (A)

27. The main purpose of co-curricular activities is to
(A) Facilitate pupil development.
(B) Provide a progressive school.
(C) Keep pupils from dropping out.
(D) Meet the demands of the community.
Answer: (A)

28. The mid-day meal programme for Pr. Schools was initiated with a view to
(A) Increase enrolment
(B) Involve community
(C) Engage teachers
(D) Increase the employment
Answer: (A)

29. VEC under SSA stands for
(A) Village Education Committee
(B) Village Enabling Council
(C) Village Environment Committee
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

30. The strategy adopted in India for the universalization of elementary education is
(A) Universal enrolment
(B) Universal retention
(C) Universal provision for schooling
(D) All above
Answer: (D)

31. Supervision in school administration should be primarily
(A) Preventive and critical
(B) Preventive and corrective
(C) Constructive and creative
(D) Constructive and critical
Answer: (D)

32. The effectiveness of supervision must, in the final analysis be judged in term of
(A) Greater community satisfaction
(B) Greater personal satisfaction
(C) Greater pupil progress towards the goal of education
(D) Reduced classroom misbehaviour
Answer: ()

33. The chief responsibility of the Principal is to
(A) Organize and administer the guidance programme
(B) Provide leadership in the institutional programme
(C) Listen to parental criticism
(D) Keep proper school records
Answer: (B)

34. Who has advocated Human Relation approach?
(A) Henry Fayol
(B) Elton Mayo
(C) Taylor
(D) Davis
Answer: (B)

35. Who replaced rule the thumb with science and advocated principles of scientific management?
(A) Carl Davis
(B) F. Taylor
(C) R. Bruner
(D) H. Fayol
Answer: (B)

36. Which of the following is not a kind of Leadership?
(A) Charismatic leadership
(B) Formal or situational leader
(C) Functional leadership
(D) Mass leadership
Answer: (D)

37. Who stated that “some are born great, some achieve greatness and others have greatness thrust upon them”?
(A) Katz & Kahn
(B) W. Shakespeare
(C) Rauch & Behing
(D) Hosking
Answer: (B)

38. Which of the following can be the most effective leadership style in your opinion for a country like India?
(A) Autocratic
(B) Democratic
(C) Laissez Faire
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

39. The responsibility of managing an Educational Institution lies with
(A) Principal
(B) The Administrator
(C) Every Teacher
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

40. Which of the following type of test items would result in wide range of scores?
(A) Too easy
(B) Too difficult
(C) Average difficult
(D) Combination of (A) and (B)
Answer: (D)

41. Rearrange in proper order, the following activities related to test standardization:
(a) Preparation of test items
(b) Planning the test
(c) Assessment of reliability and validity
(d) Tryout of the test
(A) (b), (a), (d), (c)
(B) (c), (d), (a), (b)
(C) (d), (a), (b), (c)
(D) (a), (d), (c), (b)
Answer: (A)

42. Difficulty level of item is not a matter of concern in the case of
(A) Placement test
(B) Intelligence test
(C) Criterion referenced test
(D) Norm referenced test
Answer: (C)

43. Rearrange, in proper order, the following points of Likert type attitude scale:
(a) Strongly agree
(b) Strongly disagree
(c) Agree
(d) Disagree
(e) Undecided
(A) (a), (c), (d), (e), (b)
(B) (b), (d), (e), (c), (a)
(C) (a), (b), (e), (c), (d)
(D) (a), (c), (d), (b), (e)
Answer: (B)

44. Which of the following is correct explanation about a test?
(A) Reliability is sufficient.
(B) Validity is sufficient.
(C) Reliability and validity are not essential.
(D) Reliability is essential but not sufficient.
Answer: (BD)

45. Rorschach ink-blot test is related to measurement of
(A) Intelligence
(B) Attitude
(C) Aptitude
(D) Personality
Answer: (D)

46. Which of the following is an unstructured tool?
(A) Attitude scale
(B) Objective test
(C) Intelligence test
(D) Essay test
Answer: (D)

47. The type of grading that asserts fixed proportion of learners at different grade points is known as
(A) Direct grading
(B) Indirect grading
(C) Relative grading
(D) Absolute grading
Answer: (C)

48. Preparation of a test according to test specification/test blue-print mostly enhances
(A) Reliability
(B) Content validity
(C) Concurrent validity
(D) Construct validity
Answer: (B)

49. Assertion (A): Important contribution of educational technology is in qualitative and quantitative development of education.
Consequences (C): Goal of universalisation of education can be achieved by educational technology.
(A) (A) is true but (C) is false.
(B) Both (A) and (C) are true.
(C) (A) is false and (C) is true.
(D) Both (A) and (C) are wrong.
Answer: (B)

50. Mathetics Programmed Instruction is based on
(A) Connectionism
(B) Configuration theories
(C) Operant conditioning theory
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

51. Which micro teaching skill is not described by Allen and Rayon?
(A) Student Participation
(B) Question Fluency
(C) Blackboard skill
(D) Objective writing
Answer: (D)

52. What is currently the most popular method of delivering distance learning courses?
(A) Video conferencing
(B) Video broadcasting
(C) Teleconferencing
(D) Internet
Answer: (C)

53. Concept attainment model was propounded by
(A) Ausubel
(B) Bruner
(C) Piaget
(D) Dewey
Answer: (B)

54. Concept of proprioceptive feedback is related with
(A) Training psychology
(B) Cybernetics
(C) Instructional designs
(D) System analysis
Answer: (B)

55. In different levels of teaching problem solving ability develops at
(A) Memory level
(B) Understanding level
(C) Reflective level
(D) All above
Answer: (C)

56. The use of multimedia approach in teaching learning process is in
(A) Attainment of learning objectives
(B) Individualized instruction
(C) Enrichment of instructional material
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)

57. Distance education is not
(A) Telemetric teaching
(B) Distance study
(C) Work oriented education
(D) De-schooling
Answer: (C)

58. Which is the following agency regulates and monitors special education programme in India?
(A) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(B) Ministry of Human Resource and Development
(C) Rehabilitation Council of India
(D) National Council of Teacher Education
Answer: (C)

59. In which models of Integrated Education Programme is being implemented in large scale by governmental and non-governmental agencies in India?
(A) Resource model
(B) Itinerant model
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Dual Teaching Model
Answer: (C)

60. Match the following List – I with List – II in correct order:
List – I                                                                                    List – II
a. Mild mental retardation                                                      1. 25%
b. Moderately, severely or profoundly mental retardation     2. 75%
c. Mental retardation has associated medical condition         3. 4%
d. Mental retardation have multiple handicaps                       4. 10%
5. 3%
a          b          c          d
(A)       2          1          4          3
(B)       2          3          1          4
(C)       1          4          2          5
(D)       3          2          1          5
Answer: (A)

61. There are three emerging patterns of technologies in teaching for the mentally retarded is followed. Which of the following is incorrect one?
(A) Using both Braille and sign language
(B) Assistive technologies
(C) Technologies in therapy and education
(D) Standard technologies in the workplace, community and home
Answer: (A)

62. Who have signed MOU for recognition of Teacher Education in Special Education Programme in India?
(C) NCDS and RCI
(D) RCI and NCTE
Answer: (D)

63. Match the following List – I with List – II in correct order:
List – I                                                                                                                        List – II
a. Expanded programme of immunisation implemented in India                               1. 1986
b. National iodine deficiency disorder control programme started in India               2. 1978
c. Child survival and safe mother hood programme launched in India.                     3. 1993
d. National nutritional policy was launched in India                                                  4. 1992-93
5. 1992
a          b          c          d
(A)       1          4          3          2
(B)       2          1          3          4
(C)       2          1          4          3
(D)       3          2          5          1
Answer: (C)

64. Glaucoma is a result of
(A) Vitamin A deficiency
(B) Malnutrition
(C) Aging process
(D) In case of intra ocular pressure in eye ball
Answer: (D)

65. Which of the following does not belong to measure for employment of the hearing impaired?
(A) Identification, assessment of hearing impaired children
(B) Establishment of special employment exchange and special cells
(C) Establishment of vocational rehabilitation centres
(D) Restrictions of jobs in the public sector
Answer: (A)

66. In List – I the common condition causing learning disability are given and in List – II the statements are given. Match the List – I with List – II in correct order.
List – I                                    List – II
a. Cerebral Palsy                     1. Absence of all or part of the limb
b. Muscular dystrophies          2. Joint inflammation
c. Arthritis                               3. Heterogeneous group of inherited disorders with gradual degeneration of muscle fibres
d. Amputation                         4. Persistent disorder of movement and posture due to developmental non-progressive disorder of brain
a          b          c          d
(A)       1          2          4          3
(B)       2          4          1          3
(C)       3          1          2          4
(D)       4          3          2          1
Answer: (D)

67. The National flagship programme of education (SSA) aims at
(A) Universalization of Elementary Education
(B) Universalization of Secondary Education
(C) Special Education in Primary Schools
(D) Special Secondary Academic Programs
Answer: (A)

68. “A teacher can never truly teach unless he is still learning himself. A lamp can never light another lamp unless it continues to burn its own flame” who pronounced
(A) Gandhi
(B) Aurobindo
(C) Tagore
(D) Vivekananda
Answer: (C)

69. The role of a teacher is to
(A) Impart knowledge and skills
(B) Correct the behaviour of students
(C) Conduct examinations and award degree
(D) Facilitate learning and development
Answer: (D)

70. Match the following:
List – I                                                List – II
(Special Schools)                                 (Teaching Program)
a. School for the Blind                        1. Sign language
b. School for the deaf                          2. Braille language
c. School for the mentally retarded     3. Braille and Sign language
d. School for the deaf-dumb               4. Individual Educational Programme
5. Lip reading
a          b          c          d
(A)       1          3          4          5
(B)       2          3          1          4
(C)       2          1          4          3
(D)       4          2          1          5
Answer: (C)

71. ERIC which sponsors research projects in education is a unit of
Answer: (B)

72. As per the NCTE norms the man power required for starting up M.Ed. with a strength of 25 students is
(A) 1 + 4
(B) 1 + 5
(C) 1 + 8
(D) 1 + 9
Answer: (A)

73. Refresher courses for teacher education in secondary level are conducted by
(A) State Institutes of Education
(B) Academic Staff Colleges
(C) National Institute of Education
(D) National Council for Teacher Education
Answer: (A)

74. In teaching, if nothing has been learned, nothing has been
(A) Taught
(B) Studied
(C) Examined
(D) Observed
Answer: (A)

75. DIET stands for
(A) District Institute of Educational Technology
(B) District Institute of Education and Training
(C) District Institute of Elementary Training
(D) District Institute of Elementary Teachers
Answer: (D)